BOTANY MODEL QUESTIONS FOR NEET AND EAMCET EXAM 2

BOTANY MODEL QUESTIONS FOR NEET AND EAMCET EXAM

1. The nucleic acid that silences specific mRNA of nematode Meloidogyne incognita is

a. ss RNA
b. ds RNA
c. ss DNA
d. ds DNA

ans. b

2. The most powerful tool/ technique used to identify genetic disorders is

a. Polymerase chain reaction
b. ELISA
c. DNA fingerprinting
d. RNA interference

ans. a

3. Which part of the flower becomes non-functional in transgenic Brassica napus plant?

a. Calyx
b. Corolla
c. Androecium
d. Gynoecium

ans. c

4. The school of Cytogenetics and Radiation Research is established in

a. NBRI
b. IARI
c. ICAR
d. BSI

ans. b

5. The white rust resistant variety of brassica developed by plant breeding is

a. Himgiri
b. Pusa Swarnim
c. Pusa Shubra
d. Pusa Komal

ans. b

6. Pusa Sadabahar is a mosaic virus-free variety of

a. Wheat
b. Brassica
c. Cauliflower
d. Chillie

ans. d

7. Pusa Sem 2 and Pusa Sem 3 varieties of flat beans are resistant to

a. Jassids
b. Aphids
c. Fruit Borer
d. All the above

ans. d

8. Which of the following pair of characters prevent bollworm infestation in cotton

a. smooth leaved and nectar containing cotton plants
b. smooth leaved and nectarless cotton plants
c. hairy leaved and nectar containing cotton plants
d. hairy leaved and nectarless cotton plants

ans. b

9. The free-living fungus very common in root ecosystem is

a. Alternaria species
b. Phytopthora species
c. Trichoderma species
d. Puccinia species

ans. c

10. The enzyme known to prevent heart attacks is

a. Streptokinase
b. Cyclosporin A
c. Lipase
d. Protease

ans. a

BOTANY MODEL QUESTIONS FOR NEET AND EAMCET EXAM 3

BOTANY MODEL QUESTIONS FOR NEET AND EAMCET EXAM

1. Haploid plant body is a common feature of which of the following groups?

a. Bryophytes and pteridophytes
b. Fungi , algae and pteridophytes
c. Bryophytes and gymnosperms
d. Fungi, algae and bryophytes

ans. d

2. Parthenogenesis refers to

a. Development of embryo from unfertilized diploid female gamate
b. Development of embryo from diploid zygote
c. Development of fruit without fertilization
d. Development of seed without fertilization

ans. a

3. The substance responsible for the preservation of pollen in fossil plants is

a. Peptidoglycon
b. Sporopollenin
c. Pectin
d. Murein

ans. b

4. Michaelia and Annona show gynoecium which is

a. Monicarpellary
b. Multicarpellary syncarpous
c. Multicarpellary apocarpous
d.  Multicarpellary sub-apocarpus

ans. c

5.The angiospermic family in which we see180 degrees curvature of the ovule

a. Fabaceae
b. Asteraceae
c. Cucurbitaceae
d. Cactaceae

ans. b

6. Anthocephalus kadamba and kigella are pollinated by

a. Birds
b. Bees
c. Bats
d. Butterflies

ans. c

7. Which of the following outbreeding devices is shown by datura and Solanum to prevent self-pollination?

a. Protandy
b. Protogyny
c. Dicliny
d. Herkogamy

ans. b

8. Scutellum is found in the family

a. solanaceae
b. poaceae
c. Asteraceae
d. Fabaceae

ans. b

9. The angiospermic family known for its microscopic seeds producced in large numbers is

a. Poaceae
b. liliaceae
c. Asteraceae
d. Fabacear

ans. c

10. Which element required for activity of both nitrogenase and nitrate reductase enzymes is

a. Zinc
b. Magnesium
c. Molybdenum
d. Manganese

ans. c

BOTANY MODEL QUESTIONS FOR NEET AND EAMCET EXAM 1

BOTANY MODEL QUESTIONS FOR NEET AND EAMCET EXAM

1. The living organisms that show the most extensive metabolic diversity are

a. Animals
b. Plants
c. Bacteria
d. Viruses

ans. c

2. Archebacteria can survive extreme conditions because

a. Their cell wall contains peptidoglycan
b. Their cell wall contains pseudomurein
c. Cell membrane contains branched chain lipids.
d. All the above

ans. c

3. The division Spermatophyta includes

a. Gymnosperms and pteridophytes
b. Dicotyledons and monocotyledons
c. pteridophytes and angiosperms
d. Bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms, and angiosperms

ans. b

4. Cyanobacteria are characterized by

A. Peripheral pigmented chromoplasm
B. Filaments surrounded by chitin sheath
C. Specialized cells for nitrogen fixation
D. Presence of flagella
E. Asexual fragments called hormogonia

a. ABD
b. ACD
c. BDE
d. ACE

ans. d

5. Find the wrongly matched among the following

a. Actinomyces - mycolic acid - mycobacterium
b. Mycoplasma - cell wall absent - pleomorphic
c. Eubacteria - Pseudomurein - heterotrophs
d. Archaebacteria - Pseudomurein - methanogens

ans. c

6. Which of the following statements are correct

A) Pteridophytes, angiosperms, and gymnosperms are embryotic
B) Bryophytes and pteridophytes are nonvascular
C) Gymnosperms and dicots are archegoniate
D) Algae and angiosperms are non archegoniates

a. AB
b. BC
c. CD
d. AD

ans. d


7. Preservation of genetic information is due to

a. Asexual reproduction
b. Sexual reproduction
c. selection
d. Migration

ans. d

8. Alternative selective markers are used in

a. Polymerase chain reaction
b. Insertional inactivation
c. Downstream processing
d. ligation

ans. b

9. Which of the enzymes are correctly matched to the process?

A.Chimeric DNA synthesis - ligase
B. RNA removal - Ribonuclease
C. Bacterial cell wall digestion- lysozyme

a. AB
b. AC
c. BC
d. ABC

ans. d

10. Biological pest control of lepidopterans, coleopterans, and dipterans is better achieved by using

a. Bacillus thuringiensis
b. Trichoderma
c. Agrobacterium
d. Aphids

ans. a

IBPS BANK EXAM COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 2

IBPS BANK EXAM COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. Electronic Delay Storage Automatic Computer (EDSAC) was invented by

a. Herman Hollerith
b. JW Mauchy
c. John von Neuman
d. Charles Baggage
e. J. Presper Eckert

ans. c

2. Which language is directly understood by the computer without translation program?

a. Machinery Language
b. BASIC
c. Assembly Language
d. Middle-level Language
e. Binary Language

ans.a

3. The brain of any computer system is ?

a. ALU
b. Memory
c. CPU
d. Control Unit
e. Mother Board

ans. c

4. EPROM full form?

a. Easy Programmable Read Only Memory
b. Error Program Read Only Memory
c. Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
d. Efficient Program Read Only Memory
e. Error programmable Read Only Memory

ans. c

5. Flash Memory is a type of

a. RAM
b. PRAM
c. EPROM
d. EEPROM
e. PROM

ans. d

6. .... is a form of permanent memory that holds all the instructions the computer needs to start up and does not get erased when the power is turned off

a. The Network Interface Card ( NIC)
b. The CUP
c. RAM
d. ROM
e. none of these

ans.d

7. What is the name given to the memory which works on time-sharing principle in order to create an illusion
 of infinte memory space?

a. Cache memory
b. Register
c. virtual memory
d. primary memory
e. None of these

ans. c

8. A memo data type of access can hold ..... characters.

a. 31000
b. 32000
c. 33000
d.34000
e. None of these

ans.b

9. Which of the following is one of the basic characteristics of DRAMS?

a. DRAMs must have constantly changing input
b. DRAMs must be periodically refreshed in order to be able to retain data.
c. DRAMs have a broader " dynamic " storage range than other types of memories
d. DRAMs are simpler devices than other types of memories
e. None of these

ans. b

10. Which of the following faults will the checkerboard pattern test for in RAM?

a. Short between adjacent cells
b. Ability to store both 0s and 1s
c. Dynamically introduced errors between cells
d. All the above
e. none of these

ans. d

IBPS BANK EXAM COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 3

IBPS BANK EXAM COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. On a CD-ROM , _______ are raised areas representing a 1.

a. mounds
b. lands
c. holes
d. pits
e. none of the above

ans. b

2. What program would you use to gain administrative rights to someones' computer?

a. Bot
b. Executive Android
c. Rootkit
d. Trojan horse
e. Spam

ans. c

3. Another name of computer antivirus is ?

a. Vaccine
b. Worm
c. Spam
d. Trojan horse
e. DES

ans. a

4. Computer virus program is usually hidden in .......

a. Operating system
b. Application programming
c. disk driver
d. USB port
e. Both a ans b

ans. e

5. Which one is not a computer virus?

a. Trojan horse
b. Logic bomb
c. Mcafee
d. Redlof
e. Malware

ans. c

6. what is " Trend Micro"?

a. It is an anti-virus program
b. It is just a program.
c. It is a virus program
d. It is operating system
e. none of the above

ans. a

7. What is the name of the viruses that fool user into downloading and /or executing them by pretending to be useful applications?

a. Cracker
b. Worm
c. Trojan horses
d. Keylogger
e. Malware

ans. c

8. The virus that spread in application software is called as .....

a. Boot virus
b. Macro virus
c. File virus
d. Anti virus
e. None of the above

ans.b

9. What is anti-virus?

a. It is a computer
b. It is a program code
c. It is a company name
d. It is an application
e. It is an operation system

ans. b

10. What kind of attempts is made by individuals to obtain confidential information from a person by falsifying their identity ?

a. Computer Viruses
b. Spyware scams
c. Phishing scams
d. Troan horse
e. None of the above

ans. c

IBPS BANK EXAM COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 4

IBPS BANK EXAM COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. What is the name of the first computer virus?

a. The Famous
b. HARLIE
c. PARAM
d. Creeper
e. Storm Worm

ans. d

2. How long is an IPV6 address?

a. 32 bits
b. 128 bytes
c. 64 bits
d. 128 bits
e. 64 bytes

ans. d

3. What flavor of Network Address Translation can be used to have one IP address allow many users to connect to the global Internet?

a. NAT
b. Dynamic
c. PAT
d. Static
e. LAN

ans. c

4. What are the two main types of access control lists ( ACLS)?

a. Standard, Extended
b. IEEE, Specialised
c. IEEE, Extended
d. Extended
e. Specialized, Extended

ans. a

5. You have 10 users plugged into a hub running 10 Mbps half-duplex. There is a server connected to which running 10 Mpbs half-duplex as well. How much bandwidth does each host have to the server?

a. 100 kpbs
b. 1 Mpbs
c. 2 Mbps
d. 10 Mpbs
e. 50 Mpbs

ans. d

6. Which IT company's nickname is "The Big Blue"?

a. IBM
b. TCS
c. INFOSYS
d. WIPRO
e. AMAZON

ans. a

7. How many layers are in the TCP/IP model?

a. 4 layers
b. 3 layers
c. 5 layers
d. 6 layers
e. 7 layers

ans. a

8. Where is a hub specified in the OSI model?

a. Session Layer
b. Physical Layer
c. Data Link Layer
d. Application Layer
e. None of these

ans. b

9. Which of the following layer of OSI model also called end to end layer?

a. Presentation layer
b. Network layer
c. Session layer
d. Transport layer
e. Co ordiation layer

ans. d

10. A device changing the connection on a connector to a different configuration is

a. a converter
b. a component
c. an attachment
d. an adapter
e. none of these

ans. d

BOTANY MODEL QUESTIONS PAPERS FOR NEET AND EAMCET 5

BOTANY MODEL QUESTIONS PAPERS FOR NEET AND EAM0CET

1. ABA is derived from which of the following precursors?

a. Adernine
b. Carotenoid
c. Terpene
d. Indole Compound

ans. b

2. Father of ecology in India is

a. Panchanan Maheswari
b. Ramdeo Mirsa
c. J.C. Bose
d. V.S. Ramdas

ans. b

3. Mangroves of West Bengal are a good example for the following ecological services

a. Supporting services
b. Provisioning services
c. Cultural Services
d. Regulating Services

ans. d

4. Loss of chromosome identity and formation of Golgi complex and Endoplasmic reticulum are the events during

a. Prophase
b. Metaphase
c. Anaphase
d. Telophase

ans. d

5. Due to splitting fo centromere chromatids move towards poles during anaphase of

a. Mitosis only
b Mitosis and Meiosis I
c. Mitosis and Meiosis II
d. Mitosis, Meiosis I and Meiosis II

ans. c

ZOOLOGY MODEL QUESTIONS FOR NEET AND EAMCET MEDICAL QUESTION PAPER

1. Assertion (A): Species is a breeding unit.
   Reason(R): It is reproductively isolated from the individuals of other species.

a. Both A and R are true. R is the correct explanation for A.
b. Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation for A.
c. A is true But R is false
d. A is false But R is true.

ans. a

2. Study the following statements
A) Adult gastropods are asymmetrical due to torsion in their development
B) In Vertebrates kidneys are retroperitoneal organs
C) Lining of alveoli of lungs is formed by simple cuboidal epithelium
D) Mammary glands are holocrine glands

Among the above, identify the correct statements
a. A,C
b. A,B
c. C,D
d. A, D

ans. b

3. These cells are developed from mesoderm

a. Astrocytes
b. Ependymal cells
c. Satellite cells
d. Microglial cells

ans. d

4. Gnathochilerium of diplopods is modified

a  Maxillulae
b. Mandibles
c. Maxillae
d. Poison claws

ans. c

5. Reptiles with 10 pairs of cranial nerves
a. Lizards
b. Tortoises
c. Crocodiles
d. Snakes

ans. d.

6. In Modern flying birds associated with lungs, the following air sacs are present

A. Posterior thoracic air sac
B. Cervical air sac
C. Abdominal air sac
D. Anterior thoracic air sac
Arrange then in correct sequence from anterior end to posterior end of the body

a. BDAC
b. CADB
c. DABC
d. DACB

ans. a

7. It is measured by counting the number of taxa (usually Species) within a particular area

a. Gamma Diversity
b. Alfa Diversity
c. Beta Diversity
d. Species Diversity

ans. b

8. Os Cardis is a

a. Replacing bone
b. Investing bone
c. Sesamoid bone
d. Visceral bone

ans.d

9. Study the following statements

A) Radula is absent in pelecypods
B) Larva of sea cucumbers is bipinnaria
C)Aristotle's lantern is unique for Echinoids
D) Larva of hemichordates is auricularia
Identify the incorrect statements

a. AB
b. BD
c. AD
d. CD

ans. b

10. This tissue generates heat in infants to maintain body temperature

a. Reticular tissue
b. Erythropoietic tissue
c. Brown adipose tissue
d. Areolar tissue

ans. c

CURRENT AFFAIRS 2

1. A.J. Paulraj committee suggested that most guidelines on regulatory matters be promulgated by March 2019 to facilitate early 5G deployment. Who is the union minister of Electronics and Information Technology?

a. Ravi Shankar Prasad
b. Nirmala Sitharaman
c. Mukhtar Abbas Naqvi
d. Prakash Javadekar
e. Thaawar Chand Gehlot

ans. a

2. Who is the present TRAI chairman?

a. Subhash Chandra Kuntia
b. Hemanth contractor
c. R.S. Sharma
d. Urijit Patel
e. Ajay Thaygi

ans. c

3. TRAI regularly issues orders and directions on various subjects such as tariffs, interconnections, quality of service, DTH services and MNP. In this context, MNP stands for....?

a. More Number Portability
b. Mobile Name Portability
c. Mobile Number Point
d. Mention Number Portability
e. Mobile Number Portability

ans. e

4. 5G congress 2018 will be held on 19 September 2018 at .....?

a. Lucknow
b. Patna
c. Nashik
d. Indore
e. New Delhi

ans. e

5. Which nation got top rank in E-Government index 2018?

a. Sweden
b. UK
c. Denmark
d. Australia
e. South Korea

ans. c

CURRENT AFFAIRS 2018

1. In Acronym, 'BIMSTEC', M stands for .... ?

a. Memory
b. Management
c. Module
d. Multi-Sectoral
e. Maritime

ans. d

2. Prime minister of India and Prime minister of Nepal Jointly inaugurated the Nepal Bharat Maitri Dharmashala at the ....?

a. Pashupatinath temple complex
b. Adinath temple complex
c. Swamy Naryan temple complex
d. Ramayan temple complex
e. Basaveswara temple complex

ans. a

3. Katmandu Declaration stresses in ending poverty from the region by .... in line with the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals.

a. 2030
b. 2045
c. 2050
d. 2040
e. 2020

ans. a

4. BIMSTEC Permanent Secretariat located at ....?

a. New Delhi
b. Dhaka
c. Bangkok
d. Islamabad
e. Katmandu

ans. b

5. Present Secretary General of BIMSTEC is .......?

a. M.Shahidul Islam
b. Amjad Hussain B Sial
c. Mauricio Macri
d. Le Luong Minh
e. Jens Stoltenberg

ans. a

6. Which nation is going to host BIMSTEC  Startup Conclave in December 2018?

a. Bangladesh
b. Bhutan
c. India
d. Nepal
e. Myanmar

ans. c

7. India Mobile Congress 2018 to be hosted by ....?

a. Rameswarm
b. Ernakulam
c. Hubballi
d. New Delhi
e. Mumbai

ans. d

8. BIMSTEC Ministerial Meeting on Culture to be hosted by Bangledesh. Which of the following statements is wrong related to Bangladesh?

a. Capital Dhaka
b. Currency Rupee
c. President Abdul Hamid
d. Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina
e. All the above statements are correct

ans. b

ZOOLOGY EAMCET MEDICAL MODEL QUESTION PAPER

1. Passenger pigeon previously existed in

a. South America
b. South Africa
c. North America
d. Australia

ans. c

2. The sponge that lives in shallow marine water is

a. Leucosolenia
b. Euplectella
c. Chalina
d. Cliona

ans. a

3. Read the following statement

1) All scyphozoans are solitary and medusoid forms are Sedentary
2) Cnidarians are generally unisexual forms
3) Ephyra larvas are produced by scyphistoma of gorgonia
4) All anthozoans are exclusively polypoid forms

From the above statements choose the correct answer

a. Except 1, all are correct
b. Except 2, all are correct
c. Except 3, all are correct
d. Except 4, all are correct

ans. c

4. The larva of cestodes is

a. Miracidium
b. Redia
c. Cercaria
d. Cysticerus

ans. d

5. Hagfish is also called

a. Amphioxus
b. lime eel
c. Lancelet
d. Lamprey

ans. b

6. This bone in the birds is called wishbone?

a. Synsacrum
b. Pygostyle
c. Sternum
d. Furcula

ans. d

7. Cytolytic enzymes secreted by the secretory organelles are helpful in the penetration of sporozoite into

a. RBC
b. Liver cells
c. Crop of mosquito
d. WBC

ans. a

8. Which part of the brain autonomous nervous system?

a. Cerebrum
b. Diencephalon
c. Cerebellum
d. Corporabigemina

ans. b

9. Trace the path of sperms after they are produced in the testes

A. Bidders canals
B. Ureter
C. Transverse canals
D. Seminiferous tubules
E. Vasa efferntia
F. Cloaca

The correct answer is

a. D -> A -> E -> B -> C -> F
b. E -> D -> A -> C -> F -> B
c. D -> E -> A -> C -> B -> F
d. A -> D -> B -> E -> C -> F

ans. c

ENGLISH MODEL QUESTION PAPER 3

1. Police use their riots shields to .... bricks and other missiles were thrown at them

a. find out
b. bend out
c. fend off
d. send off
e. show off

ans. c

2. when late prime minister Atal Bihari Vajpai was in Hospital in a critical condition, the entire nation hoped that he would soon.......

a. turn the corner
b. bend the corner
c. lend the corner
d. win the corner
e. run the corner

ans. a

3. The government admits that in implementing ' The Health for All' scheme, there are many.......

a. glass necks
b. bottlenecks
c. cup necks
d. jug necks
e. tumbler necks

ans. b

4. Sita is the .... of her parents' eye

a. apple
b. mango
c. orange
d. banana
e. pineapple

ans. a

5. Rani advised me not to .... off my new diamond ring

a. send
b. sent
c. show
d. showed
e. lend

ans. c

6. To get free medical PG admission to Radha, her father moved........

a. state and government
b. university and college
c. earn and heaven
d. the sun and the moon
e. here and there

ans. c

7. Our Deputy Director often refuses to play a second.....

a. round
b. guitar
c. sitara
d. flute
e. fiddle

ans. e

8. Recently my plan of buying a house in Hyderabad has ....... through when the bank refused to give a loan to me

a. fallen
b. falling
c. felled
d. fell
e. felling

ans. a

9. our soldiers the other day fought ..... in capturing some hardcore terrorists.

a. tooth and nail
b. head and shoulder
c. arms and legs
d. hand in hand
e. head and tail

ans. a

10. Sharing the river water is often a ...... among our states

a. bank of contention
b. bone of contention
c. boon of contention
d. bond of contention
e. blood of contention

ans. b

ENGLISH MODEL QUESTION PAPER 1

IDIOMS AND PHRASAL VERBS

Directions (1-10): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence, there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers 1,2,3,4 and 5. Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the same order to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

1. If you kindly bear ..... Ravi for some time, he shall ....... the whole issue.

a. out and show
b. with and clarity
c. for and open
d. in and close
e. from and clear

ans. b

2. The account of the crime given by police was ....... and was.........

a. correct and documented
b. narrated and factual
c. narrated and doctored
d. recorded and revealed
e. balanced and imaginary

ans. a

3. when the agitating students turned ....... police opened fire to bring the ...... under control.

a. back and group
b. down and ground
c. peaceful and place
d. violent and situation
e. up and time

ans. d

4. A ....... reader gets much greater joy from reading books than a close-fisted person in-.............

a. new and sleeping
b. powerful and spending

c. fervent and hoarding
d. small and sharing
e. regular and receiving

ans. c

5. With large classes, it is difficult for teachers to ..... regular essay type questions for homework because..... long answers would take too much time.

a. write and erasing
b. give and evaluating
c. take and estimating
d. copy and encircling
e. impose and endorsing

ans. a

6. Hari has a ........ sense of words, Therefore, the sentences he constructs are always.... with rich meaning.

a. great and fraught
b. little and barren
c. less and limited
d. no and round
e. bad and brimming

ans. a

7. The present education system is .......... and needs.........

a. complete and improvement
b. full and betterment
c. defective and reforming
d. total and redressal
e. inadequate and recharging

ans. c

8. Punishment is ....... and ..... a lot of wrongdoings.

a. a gift and help
b. a godsend and creates
c. a deterrent and prevents
d. a door stopper and laces
e. a wage and wipes

ans. c

9. Pradeep was .......for the crime of .......

a. honored and eve teasing
b. fined and drunken driving
c. detained and directing a film
d. fired and incurring heavy losses
e. denounced and employing a child

ans. b

10. The ....... manners of the new bride won for her the ...... of one and all.

a. good and praise
b. old and hearts
c. new and affection
d. crude and recognition
e. refined and warmth

ans. a

CURRENT AFFAIRS MODEL QUESTIONS 2018

1. Which city got the first rank in the Ease of Living Index 2018?

a. Navi mumbai
b. Greater Mumbai
c. Pune
d. Tirupathi
e. Chandigarh

ans. c

2. Which city ranked poorest 111th rank in the Ease of living index 2018?
.
a. Kohima of Sikkim
b. Patna of Bihar
c. Rampur of Uttar Pradesh
d. Bihar Sharif of Bihar
e. Bhagalpur of Bihar

ans. c

3. The Housing and Urban Affairs Minister ( independent charge) Hardeep Singh Puri Represents which state in Rajya Sabha?

a. Bihar
b. Madya Pradesh
c. Punjab
d. West Bengal
e. Uttar Pradesh

ans. e

4. Which state bagged four places in the list of top ten ranking in the Ease of Living Index 2018?

a. Goa
b. Uttar Pradesh
c. Maharashtra
d. MP
e. Uttarakand

ans. c

5. Which rank got by New Delhi in Ease of Living Index 2018?

a. 15
b. 7
c. 65
d. 11
e. 110

ans. c

6. Tirupathi got 4th rank, Vijayawada got 9th rank and which rank got by Hyderabad in Ease of Living Index 2018?

a. 5
b. 14
c. 18
d. 100
e. 27

ans. e

7. Rs.100 denomination note bears the signature of .....?

a. Deputy Governor of RBI
b. Finance Minister of India
c. Governor of RBI
d. CEO NITI Aayog
e. President of India

ans. c

8. Rani-ki-Vav, on the banks of the Saraswati River, was initially built as a memorial to a king in the 11th century AD. It is located in ........?

a. Maharastra
b. West Bengal
c. Gujarat
d. Uttarakand
e. Uttar Pradesh

ans. c

9. Swachh Bharat logo with slogan minted on the reverse side of new design Rs.100 denomination bank note. The slogan of Swachh Bharat is .....?

a. Kadam Kadam ke swacchatha
b. Swaccha Bharat, Sreshta Bharat
c. Swaccha Bharat, Bharat Nirman
d. Ek Kadam Swacchathake Aur
e. Swaccha Bharat, Bhada Bharat

ans. d

10. For the benefit of visually impaired people, how many angular bleed lines both on the right and left sites printed on the front side of the new design Rs.100 denomination banknote?

a. Four
b. Seven
c. Six
d. Three
e. Hundred

ans. a

11. First World Hindi Conference was held in 1975 in .....?

a. Nagpur
b. Port of Spain
c. Port Louis
d. Paramaribo
e. Bhopal

ans. a

12. Narendra Modi had laid the foundation stone for the construction of " World Hindi Secretariat" in 2015
in .....?

a. Sri Lanka
b. Indonesia
c. Denmark
d. Mauritius
e. Bangladesh

ans. d

13. World Junior Squash Championships 2018 was held in ....?

a. Cairo
b. Paris
c. Chennai
d. Pune
e. Canberra

ans. c